Naked Science Forum

Non Life Sciences => Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology => Topic started by: jeffreyH on 12/12/2013 03:44:04

Title: How would a spin 2 particle be effected by a magnetic field?
Post by: jeffreyH on 12/12/2013 03:44:04

This is a strange question I know but spin 1/2 and other particles are effected so why not spin 2? The detection of an effect (highly improbable) could provide a link between electromagnetic and gravitational fields. Is it thought that there would be no interaction?

Title: Re: How would a spin 2 particle be effected by a magnetic field?
Post by: jeffreyH on 12/12/2013 18:21:34

Quote from: Pmb on 12/12/2013 17:33:14

They're effected in the same way with the difference being the possible values of the spins measured.

Are there thought to be any massive spin 2 particles or should they all be considered massless?

Title: Re: How would a spin 2 particle be effected by a magnetic field?
Post by: Pmb on 12/12/2013 20:19:09

Quote from: jeffreyH on 12/12/2013 18:21:34

Quote from: Pmb on 12/12/2013 17:33:14

They're effected in the same way with the difference being the possible values of the spins measured.

Are there thought to be any massive spin 2 particles or should they all be considered massless?

I deleted my last response because I thought that you were talkking about the Stern-Gerlach experiment when I wrote it. That experiment works because the particle has a magnetic moment. Not all particles with spin have magnetic moments. I didn't know that spin 2-particles had no mass though .. or I forgot.

I'm not really sure what your asking for now though.