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Author Topic: How would a spin 2 particle be effected by a magnetic field?  (Read 1019 times)

Offline jeffreyH

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This is a strange question I know but spin 1/2 and other particles are effected so why not spin 2? The detection of an effect (highly improbable) could provide a link between electromagnetic and gravitational fields. Is it thought that there would be no interaction?


 

Offline jeffreyH

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They're effected in the same way with the difference being the possible values of the spins measured.

Are there thought to be any massive spin 2 particles or should they all be considered massless?
 

Offline Pmb

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They're effected in the same way with the difference being the possible values of the spins measured.

Are there thought to be any massive spin 2 particles or should they all be considered massless?
I deleted my last response because I thought that you were talkking about the Stern-Gerlach experiment when I wrote it. That experiment works because the particle has a magnetic moment. Not all particles with spin have magnetic moments. I didn't know that spin 2-particles had no mass though .. or I forgot.

I'm not really sure what your asking for now though.
 

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