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Author Topic: Does one sense make up for another ?  (Read 3285 times)

Offline neilep

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Does one sense make up for another ?
« on: 11/05/2004 21:20:26 »
I was just playing a agame with my kids before putting them to beddybyes !!..it involved closing our eyes.....but I pondered( while enjoying my eye closing experience), that it's a well known belief that if a person loses one sense that the other senses seem to become more acute.....

I'm just wondering if that is NOT the case and that it is the persons ability to use the remaining senses that becomes more adept.

Has there been any studies to qualify this one way or another ?

TA


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Offline Rokitansky

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Re: Does one sense make up for another ?
« Reply #1 on: 11/05/2004 21:29:33 »
Yes, it has been scientificaly documented.
One thing that makes it possible is called cortical plasticity.
« Last Edit: 11/05/2004 21:30:34 by Rokitansky »
 

Offline neilep

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Re: Does one sense make up for another ?
« Reply #2 on: 11/05/2004 22:37:06 »
Thanks Darko !!..though (sorry about this) is it that the scientific documentation is towards the sense's becoming more acute ?..........or the user being more adept at using them ?

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Offline Rokitansky

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Re: Does one sense make up for another ?
« Reply #3 on: 11/05/2004 23:36:10 »
well, it`s similar, i guess.
Let us assume that a person is deaf. In the brain, in the cortex, there is an area which is responsible for hearing sensations. When a person is deaf, especialy since birth, that part of brain becomes excited when some other senses are stimualted. For instance, visual pathways may now project in that part of cortex. However, it still isn`t clear to me what is the phychic effect of that? Does the person feels sound, or visual stimulus ? I`m not sure that scientists are sure, either.
Furthermore, if a person loses his (her) hand, tactile stimuluse on the part of the body nearby which is not damaged, might excite the part of the cortex whitch was before competent for the lost part of the body! The "phantom limb" phenomenon is refered to this.
So, the adaptation occurs in brain, not in the eye.
« Last Edit: 12/05/2004 22:20:52 by Rokitansky »
 

Offline bezoar

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Re: Does one sense make up for another ?
« Reply #4 on: 14/05/2004 00:29:39 »
Oliver Sacks had a great book about a guy who was blind for years and they had a surgery done that restored his sight.  Wreaked all kinds of havoc with his brain.  The guy had a lot of adjustment problems with distance perception, and I forget now what else.  Really didn't much like having his sight again.  I think in the end, he went blind again, and it wasn't a traumatic thing for him.
 

Offline neilep

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Re: Does one sense make up for another ?
« Reply #5 on: 14/05/2004 02:27:42 »
Nancy !!..that's amazing !!..I also read about that guy....I think he ended up being a recluse and blacked out all his windows etc and just lived in total darkness........there was a situation where I think he was on a balcony and he thought the ground was only three feet below when it fact it was 30 feet or more !!!...

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Re: Does one sense make up for another ?
« Reply #5 on: 14/05/2004 02:27:42 »

 

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