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New Theories / Re: Is the Hubble Shift due to time dilation?
« on: 22/03/2018 05:32:52 »Figure out the math for that...
Pretty sure I already did.
I started by watching a lecture on Black Holes, and it was commented that the edge of the universe would behave like an inside out Black Hole according to our POV of light.
By that statement, I decided that (x,y,z)=0=Sol was a little too Earth centrist, so I decided to re-calibrate (x,y,z)=0=Center of Expansion.
I did that by picturing the universe as a sphere inside of a box and by using simple algebra to find absolute center:
IF f(n)=x is TRUE (a line)
AND
IF f(n)≠x is also TRUE (everything other than a line)
AND THEN
APPROXIMATE an infinite margin of error to correct for.. well.. errors.
So.. ±π (a circle to its unit square, sphere to cube, hypersphere to hypercube,.. etc.)
I need a circle and an inverted circle overlapped to find dead center
Also note
π has 2 values naturally. or 3 if you want to get technical.
1st value:
The ratio of a circle to its unit square (This is what we use most commonly)
2nd value:
The ratio of its outer circumference to its square
3rd value:
The ratio of its inner circumference to its square
The outer circumference is ALWAYS > the inner circumference... otherwise it wouldn't be a sphere. Even if the circumference is infinitely thin. π IS an infinite non-answer after all.
±π≠|0|
±π=0.(∞0)n
THEREFORE
(f(n)=x)±(f(n)≠x)±π=±n
NOW
(=x)±(≠x)=±(≈x)
SO
±(f(n)≈x)±π=±n
NOW move the "≈" over
±f(nx)π≈±n
(±f(nx)π)/±n≈±n/±n
f(x)π≈1
f(x)π-1≈1-1
f(x)π-1=0
f(x)π-π-1=-π
f(x)-1=-π
(f(x)-1)/-π=-π/-π
(f(x)-1)/-π=1
((f(x)-1)-1)/-π=1-1
(f(x)-1+1)/-π=|0|
f(x)/-π=|0|
-π would constitute Negative Space or what's outside the universe. That's where Negative Energy is found, and you access it via Zero Point.
That also happens to build a 4D fixed point matrix that imagines space itself as stationary and everything within it moves away from the cosmic center, aka Big Bang at the speed of Time.
Tahdah!
Has no one considered the Doppler Effect in accordance to light waves?
Also, this lead to an advance machine learning algorithm.
f(n)=π=0=1≠0=n
It looks like nonsense for sure, but, there is a logic to the illogicality.
I just did the Math and grouped all the (in)equalities.
The function of a number(f(n)) is imaginary(=π) and false(=0) and true(=1) but doesn't exist(≠0) and is a number(=n)
"≠0" acts as a logic breaker (fixes "error, error, does not compute, error") and "π" acts as a buffer reset switch.
n=car
n=blue
n=blue car
etc......
Pretty sure that's what Google is using now since it fixed their image based search engine less than 24hrs after submitting it.
Google(search)=....
https://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=72397.0
https://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=72574.0