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We are told that the force between charged particle is mediated by virtual photons that spring into existence "instantly" and are then annihilated.How long does this take is it less than the Planck time 10^-43 sec ?

Quote from: syhprum on 02/04/2019 10:45:52We are told that the force between charged particle is mediated by virtual photons that spring into existence "instantly" and are then annihilated.How long does this take is it less than the Planck time 10^-43 sec ? instantaneous annihilation connotes a particle, anti particle interaction. planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of lightthe speed of light should be qualified by the spin of a photon which is 1.the speed of light limitation and a spin 1 value reflects a bosonic particle's existence particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2instantaneous annihilation connotes a virtual particle that never achieves a full spin value; hence a zero spin particle.a 0 spin, massless particle has no reflection to image."particle and antiparticle must have the same mass m, the same spin state opposite electric charges q and -q."*photons have "bosonic" 0 mass*the annihilation of a lefthanded, 1 spin, particle and a righthanded, -1 spin, anti-particle interactioncancels out any spin value, leaving an instantaneous virtual 0 spin particle, which is not reflective of any measurement based on a speed of light, planck value.short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value.

Quote from: esquire on 02/04/2019 16:08:26Quote from: syhprum on 02/04/2019 10:45:52We are told that the force between charged particle is mediated by virtual photons that spring into existence "instantly" and are then annihilated.How long does this take is it less than the Planck time 10^-43 sec ? instantaneous annihilation connotes a particle, anti particle interaction. planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of lightthe speed of light should be qualified by the spin of a photon which is 1.the speed of light limitation and a spin 1 value reflects a bosonic particle's existence particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2instantaneous annihilation connotes a virtual particle that never achieves a full spin value; hence a zero spin particle.a 0 spin, massless particle has no reflection to image."particle and antiparticle must have the same mass m, the same spin state opposite electric charges q and -q."*photons have "bosonic" 0 mass*the annihilation of a lefthanded, 1 spin, particle and a righthanded, -1 spin, anti-particle interactioncancels out any spin value, leaving an instantaneous virtual 0 spin particle, which is not reflective of any measurement based on a speed of light, planck value.short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value. Hogwash.

The force between charged particles is measured in labs. F=ke x pq/R^2. Coulomb's Law is the most accurate law in science. The force carriers are positive charged proton and negative charged electron. Photon is imaginary particle, has nothing to do with forces between charged particles.

planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of light

particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2

short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value.