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Just Chat! / Re: Is there a universal moral standard?
« on: 07/10/2024 16:05:22 »Has it violated the Geneva Convention?Only to the same extent that the Allies did in WWII, and probably to a lesser extent.
Problem is that the Convention followed WWII when civilian casualties ran into the tens of millions (far more than combatant casualties), so protection of noncombatants plays a significant part in the post-1949 rules of war.
The bleeding hearts now complain about civilian casualties where the enemy's armed forces are embedded in or under civilian establishments, which makes it impossible to project a just retaliation or to eliminate a threat from ground-based missiles without incurring significant noncombatant casualties.
The IDF attempts to minimise civilian casualties by issuing warnings of forthcoming actions but the destruction of infrastructure, and consequent depletion of civilian resources, remains inevitable.
The Convention necessarily acknowledges the right of States to self defence and hot pursuit of those that attack it. So on the basis that some modern warfare does not take place in trenches on open farmland, much of the Convention is irrelevant and it behoves civilians not to give succour to those who wish harm to another State.
Sensible response from an ex-CinC of the Lebanese armed forces on TV last week, suggesting that the official army should not interfere in an Israeli ground operation against Hezbollah. If only the general population of countries infected by such filth could see beyond religion and think about civilisation instead.
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