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New Theories / Re: Alternative discussion - why is the speed of light independent of inertial frames of reference?
« on: 02/07/2016 11:57:56 »
To the OP and others,
I think this question is valid, especially in attempting to determine what specific interpretation is meant. I completely understand Einstein's Special Relativity but am not sure if others have sold it to us correctly when popularizing it. The major hurdle I has was in interpreting reference frames. At first I understood this to be related to perception only. This makes complete sense and is how I re-discovered this learning from bottom up too. But when I realized that some were seeming to imply that the 'speed of any light' from any source IS moving AT one actual speed without a REAL fixed address reference (even though we can't necessarily determine this locally) I doubted this. When I heard how Einstein imagined what he would 'see' when looking into a mirror riding on a beam of light, the correct interpretation is to his original one: that he should NOT see his reflection. But the theory seemed to be asserting that he'd STILL actually be able to 'see' after all but that his time slows down.
To me, this should be still unattainable to realize AT the speed of light as one would literally be 'frozen' in time relative to themselves at that point. In fact, for this to actually be 'true', it should require that even all of one's essence as matter should be completely converted to light and be irreversible because no "vertical" information would exist for even any atoms that may have originally made up the observer. I am certain this IS the case.
Another factor is that the particular definition of light itself that is being measured in such an inertial frame MUST be that which originates IN that frame. Otherwise, the light from any other source itself is NOT the 'same'. I had a different thought experiment that explains why as follows:
Presume that we are given any electromagnetic signal that could be sent from two different worlds AT the speed of light via a movie stream of information. Let the signals of such be of the same exact show or movie lasting one hour should one be viewing it in their own frame. Then, assume a ship is in transit at a fixed inertial speed from one place (planet) to the other.
As you move away from the source, what might be an 'hour' long show would have its information stretched and so reach the ship in longer time relative to an external observer AT the same inertia as the planets. While the time of the ship would be adjusted internally to 'fit' its apparent time as an hour too watching the movie, should the signal from the other planet be 'blue shifted, its information is compressed to less than an hour moving toward it. You also are biased to the time frame that 'favors' perceiving the program from the source planet you came from. But the information coming from the opposite direction could not MATCH logically with the time in the same way. That is, your relative 'time' doesn't both slow down AND speed up in order to perceive both the forward information of the electromagnetic signals in both directions.
Thus, the actual speed of light has to be 'fixed' relative to some real absolute background and it is NOT time itself that alters, but only the perception of this locally. It is the very matter that makes you up while transiting through space that 'slows' relative to the inertia of the ship, not an absolute time. If this were not the case, the length of the beam moving towards you from the planet you are moving towards would itself be contracted in length such that it would have to 'know' your speed to adjust for it at a distance and spread out to 'fit' with the same beam from behind.
Because the signal from behind 'fits' with the ship (note, also because it had to accelerate from that source), and since the mechanism picking up the signal at the ship will match the rate it is able to also present itself on some screen for the moving observer to watch, the quality of the signal will have more resolution of information from its source and a loss of it from its destination, since the timing to translate the signal is based on the slower beam of its source.
I'm thus confused at why they abandoned the aether since this logic should account for the Michelson-Morley experiment. That is, you should EXPECT that the Michelson-Morley experiment SHOULD not be able to pick up the actual background aether because every part of the apparatus is affected in all directions. So while I understood that Einstein's explanation 'fit' to the experiment, why did they not 'go back' and accept that this explanation such that it provides a reason for why it is unmeasureable even if it should be affected, and have the aether reinstated? It seemed as though Einstein defaulted to accepting that there was no aether and WHY he interpreted 'time' as being relative, and not that the matter in space itself is what is relative along with the perception of the moving observer.
I think this question is valid, especially in attempting to determine what specific interpretation is meant. I completely understand Einstein's Special Relativity but am not sure if others have sold it to us correctly when popularizing it. The major hurdle I has was in interpreting reference frames. At first I understood this to be related to perception only. This makes complete sense and is how I re-discovered this learning from bottom up too. But when I realized that some were seeming to imply that the 'speed of any light' from any source IS moving AT one actual speed without a REAL fixed address reference (even though we can't necessarily determine this locally) I doubted this. When I heard how Einstein imagined what he would 'see' when looking into a mirror riding on a beam of light, the correct interpretation is to his original one: that he should NOT see his reflection. But the theory seemed to be asserting that he'd STILL actually be able to 'see' after all but that his time slows down.
To me, this should be still unattainable to realize AT the speed of light as one would literally be 'frozen' in time relative to themselves at that point. In fact, for this to actually be 'true', it should require that even all of one's essence as matter should be completely converted to light and be irreversible because no "vertical" information would exist for even any atoms that may have originally made up the observer. I am certain this IS the case.
Another factor is that the particular definition of light itself that is being measured in such an inertial frame MUST be that which originates IN that frame. Otherwise, the light from any other source itself is NOT the 'same'. I had a different thought experiment that explains why as follows:
Presume that we are given any electromagnetic signal that could be sent from two different worlds AT the speed of light via a movie stream of information. Let the signals of such be of the same exact show or movie lasting one hour should one be viewing it in their own frame. Then, assume a ship is in transit at a fixed inertial speed from one place (planet) to the other.
As you move away from the source, what might be an 'hour' long show would have its information stretched and so reach the ship in longer time relative to an external observer AT the same inertia as the planets. While the time of the ship would be adjusted internally to 'fit' its apparent time as an hour too watching the movie, should the signal from the other planet be 'blue shifted, its information is compressed to less than an hour moving toward it. You also are biased to the time frame that 'favors' perceiving the program from the source planet you came from. But the information coming from the opposite direction could not MATCH logically with the time in the same way. That is, your relative 'time' doesn't both slow down AND speed up in order to perceive both the forward information of the electromagnetic signals in both directions.
Thus, the actual speed of light has to be 'fixed' relative to some real absolute background and it is NOT time itself that alters, but only the perception of this locally. It is the very matter that makes you up while transiting through space that 'slows' relative to the inertia of the ship, not an absolute time. If this were not the case, the length of the beam moving towards you from the planet you are moving towards would itself be contracted in length such that it would have to 'know' your speed to adjust for it at a distance and spread out to 'fit' with the same beam from behind.
Because the signal from behind 'fits' with the ship (note, also because it had to accelerate from that source), and since the mechanism picking up the signal at the ship will match the rate it is able to also present itself on some screen for the moving observer to watch, the quality of the signal will have more resolution of information from its source and a loss of it from its destination, since the timing to translate the signal is based on the slower beam of its source.
I'm thus confused at why they abandoned the aether since this logic should account for the Michelson-Morley experiment. That is, you should EXPECT that the Michelson-Morley experiment SHOULD not be able to pick up the actual background aether because every part of the apparatus is affected in all directions. So while I understood that Einstein's explanation 'fit' to the experiment, why did they not 'go back' and accept that this explanation such that it provides a reason for why it is unmeasureable even if it should be affected, and have the aether reinstated? It seemed as though Einstein defaulted to accepting that there was no aether and WHY he interpreted 'time' as being relative, and not that the matter in space itself is what is relative along with the perception of the moving observer.