Post by: guest39538 on 18/11/2015 17:39:21
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Is this understood? if not how can I improve it? what maths do I need?
i am trying to show this
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multivalued_function
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Post by: guest39538 on 19/11/2015 01:08:20
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Post by: guest39538 on 19/11/2015 13:33:04
X^²=Y={σ²(x)/Y}/σ²(z)/t
P(x^²)/y/z=0_1/t
Y=∭(x}
Post by: alancalverd on 19/11/2015 13:41:46
Post by: guest39538 on 19/11/2015 23:14:39
pi∫∫le
Only because you do not recognise this as maths you already know, you don't know this maths because it does not exist yet. So you can't recognise it instantly.
It reads elegantly.
x is constant
y and z are variable
x=52
y=104
Post by: chiralSPO on 20/11/2015 00:40:32
It reads elegantly.
x is constant
y and z are variable
x=52
y=104
how is y a variable and 104?
Post by: guest39538 on 20/11/2015 08:39:58
It reads elegantly.
x is constant
y and z are variable
x=52
y=104
how is y a variable and 104?
X^² is x to the power of 2
which is equal to Y.
X²=Y²
X only contains a specific 1 of 1/52 where Y contains 2 or more of a specific
If we have 100 decks of cards we have 100 chances that the top card is 1/52 to a specific card, all 100 top cards could be the same specific card, or all 100 top cards could contain no specific of the card.
It is a variable compared to 1/52
X is rows and Y is columns, X can only have 1 out of 52 where y can have several of 1 of 52
X^²=Y={σ²(x)/Y}/σ²(z)/t
P(x^²)/y/z=0_1/t
X to the power of 2 is equal to y which is equal to a variation of x divided by Y which is distributed to multiple Z that is ever changing over time
so it cant be 1/52 because the 1 could be several or none. so the P=0_1/t
Post by: guest39538 on 20/11/2015 23:55:24
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we have a 1/36 chance of intercepting a 4/52 chance
Post by: guest39538 on 22/11/2015 16:01:23
4/52
{x}Δ{σ²X}={Y}=Δ4=σ²P[A]/{Y}
(ε, δ)=4/X
(ε, δ)=52/Y
Post by: alancalverd on 23/11/2015 00:52:07
we have a 1/36 chance of intercepting a 4/52 chanceWrong. It doesn't matter where the ball stops, or how many packs there are: the probability of any position being an ace is exactly the same, i.e. 1/13.
Take a simpler example. Toss a coin as many times as you like. The probability of the nth toss being a head is 1/2 whatever the value of n.
Post by: guest39538 on 23/11/2015 16:29:50
we have a 1/36 chance of intercepting a 4/52 chanceWrong. It doesn't matter where the ball stops, or how many packs there are: the probability of any position being an ace is exactly the same, i.e. 1/13.
Take a simpler example. Toss a coin as many times as you like. The probability of the nth toss being a head is 1/2 whatever the value of n.
No Alan, honestly mate
φ{X}/t=1/52
Z
≠
φ{Y}/t=0_52/52
^Z
∑{Y}≠∑{X}
Post by: guest39538 on 24/11/2015 00:44:07
φ{X}=1:52
φ{Y1.....Y52}=(<1.=1.>1):52
Post by: chiralSPO on 24/11/2015 02:05:24
added - surely this is understandable?
φ{X}=1:52
φ{Y1.....Y52}=(<1.=1.>1):52
nope. I might understand the first line, but I have no clue what the second line means...
typically = means "equal to" as in a = b means a is equal to b
and > means "greater than" as in c > d means c is greater than d
and < means "less than" as in d < c means d is less than c
(if c > d then d < c; if a = b then b = a)
by these definitions "<1.=1.>1" is completely nonsensical.
if you are not using standard, generally accepted notation, then you must explain what it is that you mean (at the very least define your operations)
Post by: guest39538 on 24/11/2015 09:27:26
added - surely this is understandable?
φ{X}=1:52
φ{Y1.....Y52}=(<1.=1.>1):52
nope. I might understand the first line, but I have no clue what the second line means...
typically = means "equal to" as in a = b means a is equal to b
and > means "greater than" as in c > d means c is greater than d
and < means "less than" as in d < c means d is less than c
(if c > d then d < c; if a = b then b = a)
by these definitions "<1.=1.>1" is completely nonsensical.
if you are not using standard, generally accepted notation, then you must explain what it is that you mean (at the very least define your operations)
Yes greater than and less than and equal to, I have put . to represent and/or. And put it in brackets to rep a set
Help me please, I am trying to create something like this P(a ≤ x ≤ b) = ∫ f (x) dx to rep Y change.
Post by: guest39538 on 24/11/2015 10:16:02
φ{X}=1:52
φ{Y1...............Y52}=?/52
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This
ppp123,
ppp231,
ppp231,
ppp213
123,
231,
231,
213
ppp
ppp
ppp
ppp
spot the difference competition.
Post by: guest39538 on 25/11/2015 10:53:53
draw card 1 from deck 1, a 1/52 to be any value
draw card 1 from deck 2, a 1/52 to be any value
1/52=1/52
Both cards have equal chance to being the same value.
Post by: guest39538 on 01/12/2015 03:45:08
https://theoristexplains.wordpress.com/2015/12/01/apparently-this-is-wrong/
Post by: guest39538 on 02/12/2015 17:56:40
''In statistics, the autocorrelation of a random process describes the correlation between values of the process at different times, as a function of the two times or of the time lag. Let X be some repeatable process, and i be some point in time after the start of that process. (i may be an integer for a discrete-time process or a real number for a continuous-time process.) Then Xi is the value (or realization) produced by a given run of the process at time i. Suppose that the process is further known to have defined values for mean μi and variance σi2 for all times i. Then the definition of the autocorrelation between times s and t is''
I am trying to explain this .
Post by: guest39538 on 03/12/2015 14:50:51
λ(X)=φt
λ(Y)=σ
/
λ(X)=φt1=
λ(Y)=σ
=t2Post by: guest39538 on 03/12/2015 15:32:03
=
=
=
=
=