Naked Science Forum
On the Lighter Side => New Theories => Topic started by: guest39538 on 22/01/2018 12:37:25
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I can't post in other sections will answer you here, you put :
Consider three frames labeled A, B and C containing objects a, b and c respectively. If we set our frame of observation to be A we can then define the motions of B and C. observations from A show that C is moving away with a constant velocity and B is maintaining an equal distance between both in straight line. Now we can determine that time dilation must be greater than that in A for both B and C. However, the inverse must also be considered possible if we take our observation point to be frame C. In both these situations the value of time dilation in A and B cannot be equal. If we now consider B to be our observation frame then the values in A and C MUST be equal. To state that this is because all things are relative misses the point. The absolute values of time dilation may be impossible for us to determine but that doesn't mean they do not exist. Opinions?
A,B,C all occupy time and space, they are not time and neither is your measurement. All A,B,C occupy the present and time passes for all at the same constant rate. Only your measurement of time is out of synchronisation. i.e a timing dilation. Only a fool would define time as its measurement , the reason, the measurement is indirectly.
added- A car drives around a race track at exactly 100mph.
Two observers time the journey.
Observer (A)'s stop watch runs slower than observers (B) stop watch, does anyone in their right mind thinks this affects the velocity of the car?
Its called indirect measurements.