Post by: esquire on 02/04/2019 16:08:26
We are told that the force between charged particle is mediated by virtual photons that spring into existence "instantly" and are then annihilated.
How long does this take is it less than the Planck time 10^-43 sec ?
instantaneous annihilation connotes a particle, anti particle interaction.
planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of light
the speed of light should be qualified by the spin of a photon which is 1.
the speed of light limitation and a spin 1 value reflects a bosonic particle's existence
particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2
instantaneous annihilation connotes a virtual particle that never achieves a full spin value; hence a zero spin particle.
a 0 spin, massless particle has no reflection to image.
"particle and antiparticle must have
the same mass m,
the same spin state
opposite electric charges q and -q."
*photons have "bosonic" 0 mass*
the annihilation of a lefthanded, 1 spin, particle and a righthanded, -1 spin, anti-particle interaction
cancels out any spin value, leaving an instantaneous virtual 0 spin particle, which is not reflective of any measurement based on a speed of light, planck value.
short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value.
Post by: Bored chemist on 02/04/2019 19:38:28
Hogwash.We are told that the force between charged particle is mediated by virtual photons that spring into existence "instantly" and are then annihilated.
How long does this take is it less than the Planck time 10^-43 sec ?
instantaneous annihilation connotes a particle, anti particle interaction.
planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of light
the speed of light should be qualified by the spin of a photon which is 1.
the speed of light limitation and a spin 1 value reflects a bosonic particle's existence
particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2
instantaneous annihilation connotes a virtual particle that never achieves a full spin value; hence a zero spin particle.
a 0 spin, massless particle has no reflection to image.
"particle and antiparticle must have
the same mass m,
the same spin state
opposite electric charges q and -q."
*photons have "bosonic" 0 mass*
the annihilation of a lefthanded, 1 spin, particle and a righthanded, -1 spin, anti-particle interaction
cancels out any spin value, leaving an instantaneous virtual 0 spin particle, which is not reflective of any measurement based on a speed of light, planck value.
short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value.
Post by: seeker3 on 02/04/2019 23:18:58
The force carriers are positive charged proton and negative charged electron.
Photon is imaginary particle, has nothing to do with forces between charged particles.
Post by: esquire on 03/04/2019 16:47:29
Hogwash.We are told that the force between charged particle is mediated by virtual photons that spring into existence "instantly" and are then annihilated.
How long does this take is it less than the Planck time 10^-43 sec ?
instantaneous annihilation connotes a particle, anti particle interaction.
planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of light
the speed of light should be qualified by the spin of a photon which is 1.
the speed of light limitation and a spin 1 value reflects a bosonic particle's existence
particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2
instantaneous annihilation connotes a virtual particle that never achieves a full spin value; hence a zero spin particle.
a 0 spin, massless particle has no reflection to image.
"particle and antiparticle must have
the same mass m,
the same spin state
opposite electric charges q and -q."
*photons have "bosonic" 0 mass*
the annihilation of a lefthanded, 1 spin, particle and a righthanded, -1 spin, anti-particle interaction
cancels out any spin value, leaving an instantaneous virtual 0 spin particle, which is not reflective of any measurement based on a speed of light, planck value.
short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value.
^ 19th century thinking. thinking is an evolved process. 19th century thinking was great in the 19th century.
Post by: esquire on 03/04/2019 16:54:32
The force between charged particles is measured in labs. F=ke x pq/R^2. Coulomb's Law is the most accurate law in science.
The force carriers are positive charged proton and negative charged electron.
Photon is imaginary particle, has nothing to do with forces between charged particles.
spin is not a charge carrier. spin is a chirality. a photon is massless, it doesn't have a zero rest state, it doesn't requires gravitation acceleration to achieve a velocity needed to be a charge carrier.
Post by: Bored chemist on 03/04/2019 19:28:59
planck is an outdated algorithm for the determination of the speed of lightPlanck never is, nor was, an algorithm for anything. In particular it's not one for finding the speed of light.
It wasn't in the 19th century; so your statement is still hogwash.
particle existence can be defined as a full whole spin value, i.e. 1 or 2Ditto.
Post by: guest39538 on 03/04/2019 23:15:06
short answer, yes, it takes a shorter length of time then any approximation based on a planck value.
It exists this long
before it becomes a real photon .