Naked Science Forum
Non Life Sciences => Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology => Topic started by: talanum1 on 15/10/2020 13:45:31
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How does this: "the energy of a wave is proportional to the amplitude of the wave" rhyme with this: "the energy of a wave's particle is proportional to the frequency of the particle"?
Which is it now?
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Both!
The power associated with a continuous wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude.
The energy of a single photon is proportional to the frequency of the wave that models it.
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So Alan, can we from that find the amount of particles (photons) assumed to be equivalent to a defined magnitude of a wavefront? Or should that be a continuous wave?
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Yes. If a single visible photon has energy of, say, 3 eV = 4.8 x 10-19 joules, then a flux of 2.1 x 1020 photons per second delivers 1 watt to the absorbing surface.
With higher energy photons, say 0.1 - 1 MeV x-rays, it's quite possible to measure either the photon flux or the beam power. In principle this could be extended down to 10 kV x-rays where direct measurement of wavelength is possible too, but I'm getting too old to do the work!