The main reason for not counting 1 as a prime number is that most of the results we have about prime numbers, or more generally about whole numbers, won't work if you tried to state them as they are now and continued to use the term "prime number" in that statement of the result. The decision not to include 1 as a prime number wasn't really done because of some elaborate definition or way of identifying what the primes are supposed to be. I don't think following a pattern that emerges from dots had a lot to do with it. Instead, it was done because it's not all that useful to have 1 included in the set.
Another way to say this is that there's no reason you couldn't include 1 as a prime number if you want to. You go right ahead and do that. You don't even need to make up a good reason like drawing an arrangement of dots. For whatever reason, you can put the number 1 into the primes if you like. The only change that will result is that mathematicians will stop quoting their results by referring to "prime numbers" . Instead they will identify a slightly different set of numbers, let's call them "Q-rimes" and their results will be stated with respect to that. The Q-rimes will naturally be your Primes excluding the number 1. So, the only thing that will have happend is that you will have changed the name we apply to describe what is currently called the prime numbers.
I suppose to finish this I should give at least one example of a result that is useful and easily stated with reference to prime numbers (with 1 excluded but not if 1 is included).
The fundamental theorem of arithmeticEvery counting number can be written as a product of prime numbers each raised to an appropriate (Natural number) power. Furthermore, that respresentation is unique up to changing the order in which you perform the multiplication.
Example: 40 = 2
3 x 5
If you try to write 40 as some other product of primes, let's say you allow yourself to use three prime numbers p, q, r such that 40 = p
a x q
b x r
c for some exponents a,b,c then you find that you can't, there's no solution for that. The fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds.
However, if you allowed 1 to be a prime number then you can..... One solution is to set p = 2, q = 5, r = 1 and a= 3, b = 1, c= 2 . That will be another representation of the number 40 as a product of primes: 40 = 2
3 x 5 x 1
2 and so the fundamental theorem of arithmetic doesn't hold.
Is 2 really a prime number?
Actually 2 is another number that has very unusual properties even though it is prime. It is often very useful and desirable for mathematicians to consider a subset of primes that doesn't include 2. They call this set the "odd primes" and several theorems are stated with reference to "odd primes" instead of just "the primes". Alternative terms exist for this set and it's quite common not to bother naming the subset and just write a result as holding "for all primes, p > 2".
So 2 is a prime number but its certainly not typical of primes and there is a similar set, the odd primes, where you do just exclude it.