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Of course, it is also possible for electrons to be promoted by light. This is how pigments appear to be colored, and how fluorescent dyes glow.
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it seems to me that none of these arguments involve directly measuring the energy E in joules of a single photon as per the E=hf equation.
Chiral, you write : " If "time" had been going more slowly before, then light emitted longer ago could appear to have lower frequency " But I'm not sure relative what? light?
Then light need one invariant 'clock rate', or 'wavelength/Frequency' that then gets manipulated by this otherwise 'universal time change' you're wondering about, wouldn't it?
Or you're thinking of early light then being misinterpreted as it reach us in 'fast time'?
I'm not sure, but it's a interesting idea.
Let me translate it to this. Isn't that the same as to suggest that 'c' is a variable of sorts, although at all times keeping its 'proportion' relative all frames of reference, meaning that 'c' is 'c', both then and now. Seems a hard thing to test.
Consider a photon to be an object with zero mass. Some of those reaching us now, were launched umpteen billion years ago, so they don't exist for zero time!I don't think you understood what I meant.
@chiralSPO I am impressed! What exactly are your thoughts on a connection with the Hubble shift? Are you assuming a connection to the convergence of α and t? Also, what started you down this path?
So back to the question: how fundamental is time? As I see it, it is as fundamental as the other dimensions, none of which requires an absolute frame or origin. If we consider mass to be "that which is subject to gravitational attraction" then zero mass is no more conceptually difficult than zero length or zero time - no need for an origin or any embodiment of negative mass.
Or am I being too naive to see the problem?
If we take f(α) to be -1/α then at α = -∞ we have our zero value. You stated that a value of 1 for time was a consideration. At α = -1 we have our value of 1. All negative fractions from α = -1 and approaching zero give an infinite positive sequence that can map to time. Infinite time then terminates at this α = 0 boundary. Crossing into positive α then gives us negative time which descends back to zero. You still have a discontinuity.Indeed... t = -1/α will not fit the necessary criteria.
Is there a function t = f(α) for which:
• t is strictly positive for all values of α (t > 0)
• limit of t as α → –∞ = 0
• limit of t as α → +∞ = α (I know this would be t = α = +∞, but I want α and t to nearly converge well before +∞)
• the function is continuous for all real values of α (–∞ to +∞)
• an algebraic solution for f–1 can be found: α = f–1(t)
Ideally this function would also be differentiable everywhere (probably would have to be to satisfy the above constraints, but if not, I will still consider solutions that are not differentiable everywhere, but still adhere to the above)
I’m comparing time with inches and miles. The real comparison should be between time and length (distance) on the one hand, and (e.g.) seconds and millimetres, on the other. Thus, time by association, can be considered as a dimension.This is how I understand it to be.