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Others have argued that, although the equivalence principle is valid for infinitesimal regions of spacetime, this limitation renders it more or less meaningless. But this was answered by Einstein himself several times. For example, when the validity of the equivalence principle was challenged on the grounds that an arbitrary (inhomogeneous) gravitational field over some finite region cannot be “transformed away” by any single state of motion, Einstein replied: "To achieve the essential equivalence of inertia and gravitation it is not necessary that the mechanical behavior of two or more masses must be explainable by the mere effect of inertia by the same choice of coordinates. After all, nobody denies, for example, that the theory of special relativity does justice to the nature of uniform motion, even though it cannot transform all acceleration-free bodies together to a state of rest by one and the same choice of coordinates."
I'm still not sure what you meant Farsight? You wrote "Strictly speaking, imatfaal, the equivalence principle only applies in an infinitesimal region." And referring me to Kevin Brown that interpretation gets refuted by Einstein in that same paper?
Where from did that one spring?
What would make it different?
I just want to point out that the results from the southern hemisphere are opposite to the one from the northern hemisphere. Could it be an effect from the earth magnetic field (or ionosphere)? Could the light from these far away quasars posess special chromatic polarization properties? I guess we have to wait...