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The question is a little misleading. If we have a perfect sphere with a perfectly frictionless surface and set in motion an object along this surface would its inertia be changed by gravity.
That is would gravity eventually stop the motion of the object? Take the mass of the sphere as being the same as that of the earth.
I know inertia isn't considered in this way but there are reasons I am looking at it like this.
If we have a perfect sphere with a perfectly frictionless surface