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Now 1 can have different values such as mm, cm, meters, seconds, etc. So we could imply that 1 is infinite in its possible values relative to the sign we give it.

Non sequitur

Then your logic is truly flawed,

1 is infinite

How far can we extend 1 from 0 ?

Quote from: Bored chemist on 04/11/2017 19:54:20How far can we extend 1 from 0 ? You avoided the question like normal . How far can we extend 1 from 0 ?

Quote from: Thebox on 04/11/2017 20:55:20Quote from: Bored chemist on 04/11/2017 19:54:20How far can we extend 1 from 0 ? You avoided the question like normal . How far can we extend 1 from 0 ? If you extend 1 it stops being 1.

Quote from: Thebox on 04/11/2017 20:55:20How far can we extend 1 from 0 ? That question doesn't make sense. One is an absolute value. It is already at a fixed numerical distance from zero. You might as well be asking, "How far can we extend 1 meter from 0 meters?" The answer is in the question. Perhaps you meant to ask, "How many numbers exist between 1 and 0?"

No I meant what I said, how far can we extend 1 from 0.

1 is not a constant , it is a variable by the defined sign given such as mm or cm

Quote from: Thebox on 06/11/2017 01:48:03No I meant what I said, how far can we extend 1 from 0.Not any further than it already is.Quote1 is not a constant , it is a variable by the defined sign given such as mm or cm1 as a number is itself unitless. 1 has an absolute value so it is a constant. The variable is in the units you are using to describe the measurement.If you think 1 equals infinity, then that would make 2 infinity as well, because 1+1 is 2. If you continue to do this with all of the numbers you completely destroy any meaning to mathematics.

2=11=1/2 of 2 but 2 would still equal 1. I do not think you have what it takes to understand this, your mind is so limited to boundaries and not understanding an expanding boundary.

Having one shoe is exactly the same as having two shoes, right?

Not at all , 1 shoe would be half of the set.

Quote from: Thebox on 06/11/2017 20:33:58Not at all , 1 shoe would be half of the set. Then 2 does not equal 1.

Yes it does

you are thinking objects and names of quantities. You are not thinking about the relationship of numbers and the universe.

Look at this sequence. 0-1-2-3Then look at the below sequence 0-----1In the above sequence 1 and 2 are fractions of 3 but the below sequence is equal to the top sequence but without the fractions . 1 marks a boundary the same as 3 marks marks the same boundary. 1=3

I understand this is new to you so don't expect you to understand it right a way.

1/3=0.333333 of 13=1 ok?