The Naked Scientists
  • Login
  • Register
  • Podcasts
      • The Naked Scientists
      • eLife
      • Naked Genetics
      • Naked Astronomy
      • In short
      • Naked Neuroscience
      • Ask! The Naked Scientists
      • Question of the Week
      • Archive
      • Video
      • SUBSCRIBE to our Podcasts
  • Articles
      • Science News
      • Features
      • Interviews
      • Answers to Science Questions
  • Get Naked
      • Donate
      • Do an Experiment
      • Science Forum
      • Ask a Question
  • About
      • Meet the team
      • Our Sponsors
      • Site Map
      • Contact us

User menu

  • Login
  • Register
  • Home
  • Help
  • Search
  • Tags
  • Member Map
  • Recent Topics
  • Login
  • Register
  1. Naked Science Forum
  2. Non Life Sciences
  3. Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology
  4. Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« previous next »
  • Print
Pages: [1]   Go Down

Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?

  • 19 Replies
  • 2019 Views
  • 0 Tags

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

Offline geordief (OP)

  • Sr. Member
  • ****
  • 421
  • Activity:
    1.5%
  • Thanked: 7 times
    • View Profile
Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« on: 11/01/2020 00:44:27 »
I have been reading E's Popular Exposition of SR and  GR (it is for the layman and so I may be reading too much into what may be relatively simplistic scenarios) and the following "objection" to his closed room experiment occurred to me.
The gist of his argument seems to be that an observer in a sealed container  will not be able to tell if he or she is being accelerated or experiencing gravity.

However  ,if the propulsion is being caused by a rope tugging a hook in the centre of the ceiling it would be possible by  examining the ceiling to verify that the force is in fact being directed at that particular area (the room cannot be 100% rigid) and so it is possible to distinguish between a gravitational  effect vs acceleration.

If the room was vanishingly small (Or completely rigid) this would indeed  then be impossible.

Am I right or just being pedantic? (Or misunderstanding the scenario in the round?)
« Last Edit: 11/01/2020 01:05:22 by geordief »
Logged
 



Offline Kryptid

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 5463
  • Activity:
    45%
  • Thanked: 234 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #1 on: 11/01/2020 01:09:52 »
I think in order to get it to be a better analogy for the equivalence principle, you should probably assume that there are many ropes pulling equally on each part of the ceiling.
Logged
 

Offline geordief (OP)

  • Sr. Member
  • ****
  • 421
  • Activity:
    1.5%
  • Thanked: 7 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #2 on: 11/01/2020 01:26:04 »
Thanks.I think you have addressed my concern.
Logged
 

Offline Colin2B

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 5243
  • Activity:
    36%
  • Thanked: 430 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #3 on: 11/01/2020 07:48:47 »
As this is just an illustration of a principle it is reasonable to assume an perfectly rigid box. Having said that, you would be hard pressed to notice the lifting points on a standard commercial lift  ;)
Logged
and the misguided shall lead the gullible,
the feebleminded have inherited the earth.
 

Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #4 on: 11/01/2020 11:39:47 »
Quote from: Kryptid on 11/01/2020 01:09:52
I think in order to get it to be a better analogy for the equivalence principle, you should probably assume that there are many ropes pulling equally on each part of the ceiling.

Gravitation acts on all points of an object simultaneously. This is very like your many ropes analogy. It acs on all points of an accelerometer simultaneously, which is why you won't detect the acceleration due to gravity in freefall.

When supported against gravity you are still being accelerated. However, now you will be able to detect acceleration.

EDIT: The ground now acts like the many ropes.
« Last Edit: 11/01/2020 11:48:16 by jeffreyH »
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 



Offline geordief (OP)

  • Sr. Member
  • ****
  • 421
  • Activity:
    1.5%
  • Thanked: 7 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #5 on: 11/01/2020 14:24:27 »
Just as a historical note, since we went into space the mechanics of low gravity environments  (and artificial gravity) have become second (almost first) nature to us.

Was it surprising that Einstein (and  others,perhaps?) seems to have "twigged" gravity without the advantage of these  very elementary first hand observations?
Logged
 

Offline alancalverd

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum GOD!
  • ********
  • 10861
  • Activity:
    100%
  • Thanked: 632 times
  • life is too short to drink instant coffee
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #6 on: 11/01/2020 14:43:04 »
Returning to the original question: it's a good example of the difference between physics and engineering.

Physics provides mathematically perfect solutions to an ideal world of rigid boxes and flexible weightless strings. No approximations (or at least highly qualified ones like "tanθ = sinθ = θ for very small θ") or safety factors.

Engineering provides economically adequate solutions to a real world full of wind, rain, and courts of enquiry. The roof of a real lift will bend, so the emergency brakes need sufficient clearance to avoid snagging at all ambient temperatures but within wear limits.....  Spot the engineering vocabulary!

The physics of zero-g was demonstrated one afternoon by Galileo. The engineering of a space toilet took thousands of man-hours studying anatomy, physiology, mechanical engineering, bacteriology…..to improve on a hole in the ground.
Logged
helping to stem the tide of ignorance
 

Offline Halc

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 2151
  • Activity:
    31.5%
  • Thanked: 163 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #7 on: 11/01/2020 15:36:29 »
Also in reply to the OP and other posts:
The box being accelerated by one string is equivalent to a stationary box suspended similarly by a crane in a gravity situation.  Yes, the box will tip as the mass is moved from side to side, but you can't tell which situation you're in from that.

Similarly, the box need not be rigid or bendy since both will behave equivalently in both situations.  None of the experiments suggested (examining the box) really constitutes a non-local experiment, so they're all fair game.
Logged
 

Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #8 on: 11/01/2020 22:13:06 »
One question that springs to mind is what is the source of the gravitational field of any composite object? It is a combination of all the gravitational fields of the atoms that make up the object.

While electrons and protons have opposite charges that cancel they do not have opposite gravity.

The charges of the electron and proton are equivalent in strength, just opposite in sign. This equivalence in charge is not reflected in gravity. The gravitational field of the electron is not the same as that of a proton or neutron. Since their masses are different.
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 



Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #9 on: 11/01/2020 22:27:25 »
Another question is does the conservation of mass suggest that the conservation of gravity is a physical law? If so then the conservation of energy, since energy has an equivalent mass, cannot be separated from conservation of gravity.
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 

Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #10 on: 11/01/2020 22:31:03 »
So the black hole has properties of mass, charge, angular momentum and gravity.
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 

Offline PmbPhy

  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ******
  • 3903
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 125 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #11 on: 11/01/2020 22:37:00 »
Equivalence Principle - at any point of space-time the effects of a gravitational field cannot be experimentally distinguished from those due to an accelerated frame of reference.

I don't see how this is related to the posts above.
Logged
 

Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #12 on: 11/01/2020 23:11:28 »
Well conservation is important to this point. To continually accelerate at 1g without limit you would need infinite energy. In order to maintain this equivalence then time must be dilated. Thus the absolute speed of c would never be reached and you could carry on forever.

This is of course an absurd thought experiment but it does indicate that over a finite amount of time you would be unable to tell the difference. However, given enough time, you would. Since your fuel would diminish.

In an actual gravitational field, due to the conservation, time would not change the effect. Unless the object generating the field lost mass. Equivalent to the astronauts losing fuel.

So passage of time would allow you to distinguish. The same with free fall versus inertia. You hit the ground if you wait long enough.
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 



Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #13 on: 12/01/2020 02:10:15 »
Another follow up point. In an inertial frame all parts of an object can be considered to be either stationary or moving in the same direction with the same speed.

You cannot say this in free fall. The force exerted by gravity changes with height above the centre of mass of the gravitating body. No matter how small an effect, this creates tidal forces. These are not present in a truly inertial frame.

However, a truly inertial frame is not possible.

In the case of free fall, gravity can be said to be dragging along an approximate inertial frame.
« Last Edit: 12/01/2020 02:12:24 by jeffreyH »
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 

Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #14 on: 12/01/2020 02:34:21 »
This article may also be of interest.
https://phys.org/news/2020-01-satellite-space-fall-two-trillionths-percent.html
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 

Offline Colin2B

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 5243
  • Activity:
    36%
  • Thanked: 430 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #15 on: 12/01/2020 09:03:05 »
Quote from: jeffreyH on 12/01/2020 02:10:15
You cannot say this in free fall. The force exerted by gravity changes with height above the centre of mass of the gravitating body. No matter how small an effect, this creates tidal forces. These are not present in a truly inertial frame..
The illustration Einstein created assumes a uniform gravitational field, not a planetary field. As I said before it’s an idealisation to illustrate a principle.
I’m pretty sure there’s something on Pete’s site about uniform grav fields
Logged
and the misguided shall lead the gullible,
the feebleminded have inherited the earth.
 

Offline jeffreyH

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 6807
  • Activity:
    0%
  • Thanked: 174 times
  • The graviton sucks
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #16 on: 12/01/2020 12:02:25 »
I understand about the uniform gravitational field. However, in reality they do not exist. It would nullify the inverse square nature of the gravitational field. That is why I said gravity produces approximate inertial frames.

If it is not an exact inertial frame then that matters.
Logged
Even the most obstinately ignorant cannot avoid learning when in an environment that educates.
 



Offline Colin2B

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 5243
  • Activity:
    36%
  • Thanked: 430 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #17 on: 12/01/2020 14:45:44 »
Quote from: jeffreyH on 12/01/2020 12:02:25
I understand about the uniform gravitational field. However, in reality they do not exist. It would nullify the inverse square nature of the gravitational field.
They do exist as a very close approximation in a small volume eg a lift. However, I suspect that is what you mean by:
Quote from: jeffreyH on 12/01/2020 12:02:25
That is why I said gravity produces approximate inertial frames.

If it is not an exact inertial frame then that matters.
Yes, the inverse square law is a result of the effective point source of the planetary field rather than the general nature of gravitation. Similar to the difference between a spherical, point light source (inverse sq law) and plane wave which does not obey inverse law eg photon.
As you say, that means that a planetary grav field can only be an appropriation of an inertial frame and should not be used to argue the equivalence principle.
Logged
and the misguided shall lead the gullible,
the feebleminded have inherited the earth.
 

Offline Halc

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 2151
  • Activity:
    31.5%
  • Thanked: 163 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #18 on: 12/01/2020 16:35:30 »
Answering a bunch of the questions.

Quote from: jeffreyH on 11/01/2020 22:27:25
Another question is does the conservation of mass suggest that the conservation of gravity is a physical law?
Gravity is not a quantified thing, and hence cannot be something 'conserved'.  That said, it is not something that can be turned up or shut off by expenditure of effort.
All those thought experiments about how long it would take Earth to stop orbiting if the sun was suddenly gone just have no real basis in reality.  The sun cannot suddenly just be gone.  The mass cannot disappear and hence the gravitational effects of that mass similarly cannot go away.[/quote]
Quote from: jeffreyH on 11/01/2020 22:31:03
So the black hole has properties of mass, charge, angular momentum and gravity.
Just the first three, per the no-hair theorem.  Gravity is not a separate quantifiable property that can vary independent of the mass.

Quote from: jeffreyH on 11/01/2020 23:11:28
Well conservation is important to this point. To continually accelerate at 1g without limit you would need infinite energy.
Uniform gravity is equivalent to proper acceleration, not frame dependent acceleration.  One can maintain 1g of proper acceleration indefinitely with only finite expenditure of power.  You'd never get to the speed of light since a thing's proper velocity is always zero.  This situation would be indistinguishable from just sitting still in a uniform gravitational field.



Quote
This is of course an absurd thought experiment but it does indicate that over a finite amount of time you would be unable to tell the difference. However, given enough time, you would. Since your fuel would diminish.
Your fuel would diminish in both cases, so the two are still indistinguishable.

Quote
So passage of time would allow you to distinguish. The same with free fall versus inertia. You hit the ground if you wait long enough.
If you hit the ground, it isn't a case of just gravity/acceleration anymore.  Yes, you can tell (in both cases) if an external force is suddenly applied.  You'd not know from this which case you were in.

Quote from: jeffreyH on 12/01/2020 02:10:15
Another follow up point. In an inertial frame all parts of an object can be considered to be either stationary or moving in the same direction with the same speed.
Only if it isn't accelerating, rotating or containing moving parts.  Anything, accelerating or not, can be considered from any inertial frame.

Quote
You cannot say this in free fall.
Objects stationary or moving in a direction at some speed in some inertial frame IS freefall, so your statement is a contradiction.

Quote
The force exerted by gravity changes with height above the centre of mass of the gravitating body. No matter how small an effect, this creates tidal forces. These are not present in a truly inertial frame.
Detection of tidal forces is considered a non-local test, as is noting that two plumb lines are not parallel but actually point to the center of the gravitational source.   I think Colin's reply is relevant here.

There are tidal forces in a continuously accelerating environment, so mere detection of tides does not distinguish the one case from the other, at least in the accelerating scenario. Clocks run at different rates if one is above the other, in a gravity/acceleration situation. I don't think your example above is one of acceleration.
Logged
 

Offline Colin2B

  • Global Moderator
  • Naked Science Forum King!
  • ********
  • 5243
  • Activity:
    36%
  • Thanked: 430 times
    • View Profile
Re: Is the equivalence principle only approximately correct?
« Reply #19 on: 12/01/2020 23:57:28 »
Quote from: Halc on 12/01/2020 16:35:30
Detection of tidal forces is considered a non-local test, as is noting that two plumb lines are not parallel but actually point to the center of the gravitational source.   I think Colin's reply is relevant here.
Correct. The box is assumed so small that the local observer will see no effect, only the non-local will understand the point nature of the source.
There are many other strictures such as disallowing any test of the mass of the box - alternatively you have to assume it has planetary mass without creating any gravitational field.
Logged
and the misguided shall lead the gullible,
the feebleminded have inherited the earth.
 



  • Print
Pages: [1]   Go Up
« previous next »
Tags:
 

Similar topics (5)

Is the Copenhagen Interpretation correct interpretation of quantum mechanics?

Started by jeffreyHBoard Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology

Replies: 81
Views: 21746
Last post 12/11/2015 20:37:13
by liquidspacetime
Is the online Omni calculator correct as a combined gas law calculator?

Started by melaniejsBoard Geek Speak

Replies: 0
Views: 12483
Last post 06/03/2020 16:43:13
by melaniejs
Do neutrons in a neutron stars bend Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle?

Started by DoctorBeaverBoard Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology

Replies: 52
Views: 28283
Last post 02/01/2009 07:31:51
by Mr. Scientist
Are relativity equations compliant with the energy/mass conservation principle?

Started by zordimBoard Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology

Replies: 4
Views: 3413
Last post 11/12/2012 10:00:03
by zordim
The Pauli Exclusion Principle Immediately Affects Electrons Elsewhere ?

Started by neilepBoard Physics, Astronomy & Cosmology

Replies: 15
Views: 9259
Last post 23/08/2012 04:55:55
by yor_on
There was an error while thanking
Thanking...
  • SMF 2.0.15 | SMF © 2017, Simple Machines
    Privacy Policy
    SMFAds for Free Forums
  • Naked Science Forum ©

Page created in 0.186 seconds with 83 queries.

  • Podcasts
  • Articles
  • Get Naked
  • About
  • Contact us
  • Advertise
  • Privacy Policy
  • Subscribe to newsletter
  • We love feedback

Follow us

cambridge_logo_footer.png

©The Naked Scientists® 2000–2017 | The Naked Scientists® and Naked Science® are registered trademarks created by Dr Chris Smith. Information presented on this website is the opinion of the individual contributors and does not reflect the general views of the administrators, editors, moderators, sponsors, Cambridge University or the public at large.