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New Theories / Re: What makes Riemann's Hypothesis Hard to Prove?
« on: Today at 05:23:13 »We get a nice full wave when the imaginary part is exactly 2*pi
Showing the imaginary part in the same plot requires some attenuation by 3 orders of magnitude.
https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=plot+re%28log%28%28zeta%28x%2B2+pi+i%29%29+%2F+%28Zeta%281-x%2B2+pi+i%29%29%29%29+%2B+1%2F1000+im%28log%28%28zeta%28x%2B2+pi+i%29%29+%2F+%28Zeta%281-x%2B2+pi+i%29%29%29%29i+from+0+to+1
https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=plot+re%28log%28%28zeta%28x%2B2.001+pi+i%29%29+%2F+%28Zeta%281-x%2B2.001+pi+i%29%29%29%29+%2B+1%2F1000+im%28log%28%28zeta%28x%2B2.001+pi+i%29%29+%2F+%28Zeta%281-x%2B2.001+pi+i%29%29%29%29i+from+0+to+1