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New Theories / Re: How does Hamdani explain the twins paradox?
« Last post by alancalverd on Yesterday at 17:16:31 »Wikipedia summarises it neatly:
If there is no relative velocity or gravitational potential difference, the time dilation component degenerates to zero and we can assume synchronicity, i.e. the time measured by B's clock will be exactly the same as A's. This is the approximation that underlies classical (nonrelativistic) mechanics.
Where's the paradox?
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Time dilation is the difference in elapsed time as measured by two clocks, either because of a relative velocity between them (special relativity), or a difference in gravitational potential between their locations (general relativity).
If there is no relative velocity or gravitational potential difference, the time dilation component degenerates to zero and we can assume synchronicity, i.e. the time measured by B's clock will be exactly the same as A's. This is the approximation that underlies classical (nonrelativistic) mechanics.
Where's the paradox?