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Now the question leads to this, the time measured on our ship will be moving relative to the stationary ship, but the equivalence principle tells us that if we accelerate at some magnitude we can't tell it apart from gravity, but gravity bends spacetime...
... what characterizes the existence of a gravitational field from the empirical standpoint is the non-vanishing of the components of [the affine connection], not the vanishing of the [components of the Riemann tensor]. If one does not think in such intuitive (anschaulich) ways, one cannot grasp why something like curvature should have anything at all to do with gravitation. In any case, no rational person would have hit upon anything otherwise. The key to the understanding of the equality
The equivalence principle was properly introduced by Albert Einstein in 1907, when he observed that the acceleration of bodies towards the center of the Earth at a rate of 1g (g = 9.81 m/s2 being a standard reference of gravitational acceleration at the Earth's surface) is equivalent to the acceleration of an inertially moving body that would be observed on a rocket in free space being accelerated at a rate of 1g. Einstein stated it thus:we ... assume the complete physical equivalence of a gravitational field and a corresponding acceleration of the reference system.— Einstein, 1907
But if we wait long enough experiencing constant 1 g, can't we be sure that we are not linearly accelerating in free space because we would exceed the speed of light?
Assume a rocket with a very large but finite amount of fuel, accelerating at 1g. The occupant feels as though he is standing on a planet, but knows he is accelerating because his fuel gauge is decreasing.
Equivalence principle according to wikipedia.QuoteThe equivalence principle was properly introduced by Albert Einstein in 1907, when he observed that the acceleration of bodies towards the center of the Earth at a rate of 1g (g = 9.81 m/s2 being a standard reference of gravitational acceleration at the Earth's surface) is equivalent to the acceleration of an inertially moving body that would be observed on a rocket in free space being accelerated at a rate of 1g. Einstein stated it thus:we ... assume the complete physical equivalence of a gravitational field and a corresponding acceleration of the reference system.— Einstein, 1907So if we are inside a rocket and feel the pushing force of 1 g by the floor, we can't distinguish if we are stationary under gravitational acceleration, or accelerating in free space without looking outside. But if we wait long enough experiencing constant 1 g, can't we be sure that we are not linearly accelerating in free space because we would exceed the speed of light?
Exceeding the speed of light relative to what?
Quote from: Janus on 25/11/2021 16:05:22Exceeding the speed of light relative to what?Relative to the frame when the experiment began.
Quote from: hamdani yusuf on 25/11/2021 17:12:17Quote from: Janus on 25/11/2021 16:05:22Exceeding the speed of light relative to what?Relative to the frame when the experiment began.If you read the rest of my post, that's exactly what I addressed.
Proper acceleration (which is the 1g being felt by your guy) measures the rate of change in rapidity, not in velocity.
No. Acceleration (coordinate acceleration in particular) is rate of change of velocity. The rate of change of momentum is force, at least for a constant mass.
Quote from: Halc on 24/11/2021 17:03:27Proper acceleration (which is the 1g being felt by your guy) measures the rate of change in celerity, not in velocity.Does it mean that the kinetic energy becomes ½mw² instead of the usual ½mv² ?
Proper acceleration (which is the 1g being felt by your guy) measures the rate of change in celerity, not in velocity.
Quote from: Halc on 28/11/2021 17:35:08No. Acceleration (coordinate acceleration in particular) is rate of change of velocity. The rate of change of momentum is force, at least for a constant mass.Thanks for the correction. Is there relativistic term for acceleration, just like rapidity for velocity?