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  4. Is Classical Logic Unsound?
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Is Classical Logic Unsound?

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Offline talanum1 (OP)

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Is Classical Logic Unsound?
« on: 07/07/2022 09:23:23 »
Yes. In Classical Logic Syllogism: (A -> B, B -> ~C) -> (A -> ~C) is provable. However I found an interpretation that makes the premises true and the conclusion false: take A = "Are mortal", B = "All men" and C = "are dogs", "~" = not. Thus it does not semantically follow.
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Offline Colin2B

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Re: Is Classical Logic Unsound?
« Reply #1 on: 07/07/2022 10:05:34 »
Quote from: talanum1 on 07/07/2022 09:23:23
Yes. In Classical Logic Syllogism: (A -> B, B -> ~C) -> (A -> ~C) is provable. However I found an interpretation that makes the premises true and the conclusion false: take A = "Are mortal", B = "All men" and C = "are dogs", "~" = not. Thus it does not semantically follow.
Why are you saying that the set of all mortal things is the same as the set of all things that are men? That is not a valid assumption.
The set of all mortal things includes the set of all men and the set of all dogs, but all men and all dogs do not overlap.
« Last Edit: 07/07/2022 12:39:16 by Colin2B »
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Offline talanum1 (OP)

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Re: Is Classical Logic Unsound?
« Reply #2 on: 08/07/2022 12:12:54 »
I didn't know A -> B needs to be the whole truth.
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Offline Colin2B

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Re: Is Classical Logic Unsound?
« Reply #3 on: 08/07/2022 13:07:21 »
Quote from: talanum1 on 08/07/2022 12:12:54
I didn't know A -> B needs to be the whole truth.
It does if you want this statement to be true:
Quote from: talanum1 on 07/07/2022 09:23:23
I found an interpretation that makes the premises true and the conclusion false
The first premise is false.
Your lack of understanding of logic means you would make a good politician. I suggest you resign now before you get impeached.

By the way, it might be a good idea to learn logic before trying to invent a new one.
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Online alancalverd

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Re: Is Classical Logic Unsound?
« Reply #4 on: 08/07/2022 13:45:59 »
If I read the OP correctly, it states that all mortals are men, which is false;  and all men are not dogs, which is true. Using Boolean representation we have 0 x 1 = 0, so the conclusion is false. 
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Offline Colin2B

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Re: Is Classical Logic Unsound?
« Reply #5 on: 08/07/2022 14:58:16 »
Quote from: alancalverd on 08/07/2022 13:45:59
If I read the OP correctly, it states that all mortals are men, which is false;  and all men are not dogs, which is true. Using Boolean representation we have 0 x 1 = 0, so the conclusion is false. 
That’s the way I interpreted it. The logic is correct, but the first premise is false despite the OP’s claim that it is true. Typical politician, a right and a wrong do not make a right!
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