[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

My first thread about this topic :
https://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=76559.0

F=GmM/r²
This equation is not valid and wrong.
What is wrong with this equation?
Mathematics equations are a away to measure quantities related to other quantities .
Equations works for finite values, I measure r = 4 meters and find out F to be x Newtons
Equations won't work for infinite values , that is equations themselves  works finitely but not infinitely .

Let say F decreases without bound while r increases without bound, then the equation itself as a functional tool will approach infinity and the equation limit as r approaches ∞ is ∞, the equation is undefined and wrong.
If the equation definition is the tool that finds values of F for each value of r, then I can't find all values of F for all values of r , then the equation won't work for all values of F and r and it is useless and invalid.That means the equation itself approaches ∞ in measuring the quantities and undefined

[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

I can say at F=0 , r doesn't exist and equals ∞, so the equation won't work  and undefined in such case and invalid, but some scientists might say F won't reach 0 ever , so I presented the explanation above.

[Kryptid]

Your argument doesn't make any sense. The equation works just fine all the way up to infinity. When the radius equals infinity, the force equals zero. There's nothing invalid about that answer.

[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

Your argument doesn't make any sense.

It seems so because it's a new strange concept, but that doesn't mean it's illogical .

When the radius equals infinity, the force equals zero. There's nothing invalid about that answer.

The radius will never equal a maximum value"infinity", infinity is unreachable.

[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

The equation works just fine all the way up to infinity.

Yes , it works for each value of r, but it won't work for F=0, then r will be undefined.It is not logical that F won't reach zero , because r is infinite , let's say :
r=100, F=.01
r=1000, F=.001
And so on
If there is a big value for r there is always a bigger value for it infinitely , if r increases without bound then soon or later F will reach its limit which is the zero and that because in fact F has limit and the infinity of r " endless" will make F reach the zero soon or later.
r can continue forever , but F won't
If r is infinite and F has a limit " real number" then F will reach this limit while r continues forever

[Bored chemist]

The equation works just fine all the way up to infinity.

Yes , it works for each value of r, but it won't work for F=0, then r will be undefined.It is not logical that F won't reach zero , because r is infinite , let's say :
r=100, F=.01
r=1000, F=.001
And so on
If there is a big value for r there is always a bigger value for it infinitely , if r increases without bound then soon or later F will reach its limit which is the zero and that because in fact F has limit and the infinity of r " endless" will make F reach the zero soon or later.
r can continue forever , but F won't

Are you saying that no two things can get to r=0?

[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

Are you saying that no two things can get to r=0?

Yes, if r equals zero then F will be ∞ " undefined quantity" " doesn't exist" in this case the two masses will have zero value and force won't exist.
The point particle is not proved and doesn't exist

[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

I said earlier , in physics a moving object from point A=4 units to point B=3 units, won't spend its motion between A and B , that is it won't move from 3.01 to 3.001 to 3.0001 infinitely soon or later it will reach 3 , giving the idea that the object motion is continuous and not discrete. so gravity won't spend its values between say 9.8 m/s/s and zero infinitely soon or later it will reach zero making the equation which says no invalid

[Kryptid]

infinity is unreachable.

Then that makes your contention irrelevant, since the "problem" never arises in the real world.

[Bored chemist]

The point particle is not proved and doesn't exist

If there are no point particles then they can't get to r=0 and there's no problem.
Do you understand that r is the distance between the centres of the objects, not their surfaces?

[Yahya A.Sharif (OP)]

Do you understand that r is the distance between the centres of the objects, not their surfaces?

Yes, but still the two objects can't get r=0