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What I was thinking is that when in uniform motion you have no definition of your velocity except when relating it to another frame of reference.
So looking at it that way it seems to me that there is no absolute definition of the time dilation you might have in that frame other that relative another frame. Still there will be one, if I understands it right?
You can also see it as you have a different time dilation, if so, against all other frames you measure your frame against? Which is a very weird idea. That as I don't see how you can define a uniform motion, except relative another frame of reference? And I know that this falls under SR not GR.
Quote from: Geezer on 22/03/2010 20:06:05However, the real problem lies in the third sentence. We are absolutely not defining the second using the motion of light. What we are doing is defining the second in terms of atomic events. We are merely using the microwave energy released to detect and count the atomic events.We absolutely are. The atomic event concerned is the hyperfine transition. We aren't counting hyperfine transitions. That's like counting the number of plucks of the guitar string. We are counting the resultant EM wavepeaks going past. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperfine_structure#Use_in_defining_the_SI_second_and_meter for more information.
However, the real problem lies in the third sentence. We are absolutely not defining the second using the motion of light. What we are doing is defining the second in terms of atomic events. We are merely using the microwave energy released to detect and count the atomic events.
Would it make any difference for the time dilation, relative my point of origin (earth), if I took a second to reach 99% of the speed of light relative taking one year to reach that velocity?
Geezer, your ideas about defining length belong in another ATM style thread, not this one.
What do you mean by "length"?What do you mean by "ATM Style"?