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OK, fair enough, that I rescind.Which leaves me uncomfortable with 1)"Matter evaporates into aether."Einstein was talking about energy loss through radiation in the paper you quoted. So why do you need this bit of the theory? Is the displaced dark matter in halos not heavy enough that you need to generate more
2) The expansion of the universe must be resulting in a massive creation of energy as more massive aether?
3) On the scale of galaxies I don't think quantum effects would not apply due to de-coherence (the super-fluid opener was just an analogy, right). So what is causing the displacement between matter and dark matter which don't interact in any known way except (attractive) gravity?
4) "Aether is not at rest when displaced. Displaced aether exerts force towards matter. " - seems like there needs to be a theoretical mechanism by which displaced aether suddenly exerts gravity, but undisturbed aether distributes itself evenly throughout the universe?
1) so is matter "able to change into" aether or is it "continuously changing into aether everywhere throughout the universe" the word "evaporate" leads me to think you are talking about all matter having some kind of half-life.
3)OK, it's frictionless, so it just gets pushed out of the way without any work being done. But there must be a force doing the pushing, even so.
4) The gravitational attraction between two galaxies in orbit is stronger because of dark matter. How can aether displaced by one galaxy result in increased gravitational attraction towards a different galaxy (like its binary counterpart)?
So the aether act with a pressure?
Frames of reference and inertial frames?
Let me see if I got this right?Are you stating that the direction of the aether will induce a different time dilation?
MPC - first off the references you are quoting are not specifically about the effect of the æther - they rely on GR and SR and the authors / researchers might be slightly perturbed that they are being used as confirmations of the existence of the æther.
Can you confirm that the GPS satellites that are in a more polar orbit around the earth need less adjustment than those in a more equatorial orbit. Those in a polar orbit are relative to the sun (or other distant point) travelling through the æther at a almost totally uniform velocity - whilst those in an equatorial orbit are travelling through the æther at a sinusoidally varying velocity. I would thus presume that for the system to work that this variation is accounted for - can you confirm this or explain what is incorrect?
You know, I like Einsteins ideas of a friction less space. When it comes to the Hafele and Keating Experiment it's a little strange in the way it delivers two types of time dilation depending on the direction, but it was a rude experiment as I think of it. Not then, but looking back at it we today have better ways to define time dilation, like between a clock on a table relative moving the other atomic clock to the floor.It's possible to define a time dilation relative the gravity, there is a relation and that was what they did to explain the result, also defining it relative a thought 'center' of that gravity. That, combined with the motion induced relative that gravitational point made the results palatable. And that must be right, you cannot only use motion, or possibly if wanting to use that description then include Earth as gravitationally constantly uniformly accelerating at one gravity, as that is its equivalence in gravity as described by Einstein. He wouldn't have been surprised over the result of that experiment.==Although I still get a slight headache trying to see how it would work as we know that the gravity differs depending on where on earth, or above it, you are. But I presume that the thought up center was a elegant way of getting around that problem? The 'time' as such lives in a world in where every point, you defining a 'time' from, must include 'gravity's potential' at that point, also defined relative what motion you observing has relative that point. So you have a space in where every point can be said to have a certain 'time dilation' in itself if you ignore gravity's equivalence to motion, as well as having a added 'time dilation' relative the 'frames of reference' compared. That means your frame relative the 'point' you compare your 'time' too.
H&K is entirely explainable using einstein's theories. What is a frictionless superfluid with the properties of a solid? (superfluids flow, solids don't; I fail to see why this supposed state isn't self-contradictory)
At what orbit from the earth does the earth's passage through the æther become the less dominant feature - ie at what distance is the æther no longer sufficiently disturbed by the earth's passage for differential orbits to distinguished by the effects of the æther alone?Can you describe an experiment (done or future) that would prove the existence of the æther, or could you describe an experiment (done or future) that would prove the non-existence of the æther?