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  1. Naked Science Forum
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  3. New Theories
  4. x=0±1 Proof
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x=0±1 Proof

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Offline Ve9aPrim3 (OP)

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x=0±1 Proof
« on: 17/02/2018 19:25:28 »
Proof:

f(x)=x
f(-x)=f(yz)

f(yz)=x±(0/1)

f(xyz)±f(x)+f(yz)
∅±∞
0±1

         f(yz)
           =
(0/1) ± x ± (0/1)
           =
         f(yz)


...........
f(x)=x
f(-x)=f(yz)
f(yz)=x±(0/1)
f(xyz)=f(x)+f(yz)
∅=∞
0=1

I just pictured equations being balanced differently I guess.
1=1
1≠-1
1±1
All these mean the same to me.
"=" is how you balance an equation horizontally.
"±" is how you balance an equation across 3D space.

...Whoops..I mean
f(x)=x
f(-x)=f(yz)
f(yz)=x±(0/1)
f(xyz)±f(x)+f(yz)
∅±∞
0±1
« Last Edit: 17/02/2018 20:59:42 by Ve9aPrim3 »
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Offline Bored chemist

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Re: 0=1 Proof
« Reply #1 on: 17/02/2018 19:53:19 »
Gibberish.
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Offline Ve9aPrim3 (OP)

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Re: 0=1 Proof
« Reply #2 on: 17/02/2018 20:11:48 »
Quote from: Bored chemist on 17/02/2018 19:53:19
Gibberish.
f(x) is used to calculate intercept points across 2D space.
0=1 is used to calculate the intercept point across 3D space.

Working with "f(x)" is a great tool in 2D computation, but "0=1" is much more practical in 3D computation.
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Offline Ve9aPrim3 (OP)

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Re: 0=1 Proof... I mean 0±1 Proof
« Reply #3 on: 17/02/2018 20:50:27 »
Quote from: Ve9aPrim3 on 17/02/2018 19:25:28
f(yz)=x±(0/1)

         f(yz)
           =
(0/1) ± x ± (0/1)
           =
         f(yz)
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Offline Bored chemist

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Re: 0=1 Proof... I mean 0±1 Proof
« Reply #4 on: 17/02/2018 20:56:08 »
Quote from: Bored chemist on 17/02/2018 19:53:19
Gibberish.
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Offline jeffreyH

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Re: x=0±1 Proof
« Reply #5 on: 17/02/2018 21:06:18 »
Why do you bother? You must have something more productive you could be doing. Like popping bubble wrap.
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Offline Colin2B

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Re: x=0±1 Proof
« Reply #6 on: 18/02/2018 09:27:23 »
OP has requested all further discussion be directed to https://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=72397.0

So this topic is now locked
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