[aetzbar (OP)]

(A1 : A2 ) > ( O1 : O2 )

A - diameter of a circle
O- circumference of a circle.

[aetzbar (OP)]

is pi is a single number ?

[RD]

is pi is a single number ?

Pi is an irrational number , so it is a number which has an infinitely-long series of digits after the decimal point ...

3.141592653589793238462643383279502884197169399 ............

[chiralSPO]

(A1 : A2 ) > ( O1 : O2 )

A - diameter of a circle
O- circumference of a circle.

if A1 is the diameter of circle 1, A2 is the diameter of circle 2, O1 is the circumference of circle 1, and O2 is the circumference of circle 2, then the ratio of A1 to A2 must be identical to the ratio of O1 to O2. (Because the ratio A1 to O1 is identical to the ratio A2 to O2)

If you can prove that these ratios are not equal, you have either made a mistake in the proof, or made some tricky assumptions that make the proof invalid (for instance if one of the circles is defined in a Euclidean space, and the other is not)

[aetzbar (OP)]

Can you prove that ( A1 : A2 ) = ( O1 : O2 ) with out assume that pi is a single number ?

[Colin2B]

Can you prove that ( A1 : A2 ) = ( O1 : O2 ) with out assume that pi is a single number ?

Yes as long as you personally accept that pi=pi no matter what its numerical value, infinite or finite.
Use O1=pi x A1 and O2=pi x A2 to derive your ratios. Value of pi is irrelevant.
Doesn't need an experiment.

[chiralSPO]

Can you prove that ( A1 : A2 ) = ( O1 : O2 ) with out assume that pi is a single number ?

can you prove that 1 is a single number?

[alancalverd]

The properties of similar triangles are independent of the apex angle. Consider an infinitesimal apex angle a, and construct two arcs by repetitively stepping a until you reach a value θ. The locus of a point at r from the origin is s. Then by definition s = rθ for all r and all θ, hence A1:A2 = O1:O2 and θ has a single value for all circles. By definition θ_circle = 2π. Hence π is a single number.

[aetzbar (OP)]

http://mymathforum.com/geometry/50519-single-pi-number.html

[Colin2B]

http://mymathforum.com/geometry/50519-single-pi-number.html

So, they all think you are mistaken, we all think you are mistaken.
Pi is not a variable.

[aetzbar (OP)]

scientific revolution                                       
                                           
Sophisticated lines belong to geometry , but also to physics.                                       
In my opinion … the relations from the numbers 3.1416   and  3.164  will appear in  the real physical world.                                                                                                 
 
         
   Sophisticated lines do not belong to mathematics                       
   what do the math with the determination of a single internal number 3.141597.?



Finally,                                                                                                                         
If this article was written 100 years ago, he had no test.                                           
Mechanics 100 years ago , it was impossible to produce a sensitive PYPY               
Today's , mechanics can prove the existence of the sophisticated lines.                     
                           


     

[aetzbar (OP)]

pypy

[chiralSPO]

pi (π) is a number and a pure mathematical concept. It can be determined mathematically to an arbitrary number of digits (millions, billions, trillions of significant figures or as many as you like!). This would be nonsensical as a physical measurement. We might be able to make incredibly accurate measurements that are within 1 ppb or even 1 ppt, but that is only 9 or 12 significant figures. Even if we could determine the distance between our Sun and the farthest visible star to the nearest Planck length, that would hardly get us past 60 significant figures. Of COURSE you cannot measure the precise value of π using physical objects and instruments! But that doesn't mean that it is not a single number in theory.

[aetzbar (OP)]

All mathematical calculation - that belong to the length of line - good only to simple line.
mathematical computations unsuitable on sophisticated lines.
Therefor,mathematics did not find the idea of changing pi from 3.1416  to  3.164

[aetzbar (OP)]

Dmm = 3*10-7 : (pi of D – pi min)2
D – diameter of circule in mm
Pi min = 3.14159…
Pi of D – from pi min up to 3.1589

[aetzbar (OP)]

The new formula of circles – pi is not a single number 

Dmm =  0.0000003 : (pi of D – pi min)^2

D – diameter of circle in mm
Pi min = 3.14159…….  = 3.1416
Pi of D – from pi min up to 3.1589

[aetzbar (OP)]

The new formula of circles with variable pi effect                                           

Physical D = 0.0000003 : (pi of D  -  pi min )^2                                                                       

Physical D is physical length of circle diameter.                                                                     
Physical length will be marked with number of mm                                                             

Pi min = 3.14159……= 3.1416                                                                                                   
Pi of D variable from 3.1416 to 3.1589                                                                                   

When pi of D = 3.1416 ,   D = infinite  mm                                                                               
When pi of D = 3.1589 ,   D = 0.001mm                                                                                   
When pi of D = 3.14161 ,  D = 3000mm                                                                                   
                             
         

[aetzbar (OP)]

http://mathhelpboards.com/misc.php?do=showattachments&t=14468

[chiralSPO]

no.




No!



no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no no...


If you keep this up you will fail the Turing test.

PS: no one here will argue with you anymore because there is no point, so just stop posting.