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This is a leading question of course since I know the answer. I'm merely curious as to who believes it.I'm good on my word so when I said I'd post the original letter by Einstein o Lincoln Barnette I meant it so here it is. Please see attachment. In essence Einstein stated in no uncertain terms that gravity should not be thought of as a curvature of spacetime. Spacetime curvature is just the relativistic term for tidal gradients. He also stated the relativity does not geometrize physics anymore that EM or the distance between two points. Einstein_SR_GR.pdf (666.56 kB - downloaded 1146 times)
And the answer goes to.....the dude playing the flute we are making poetry to.....?< I should make that my call sign >
Who claimed gravity is a curvature of spacetime?Einstein.
He didn't say spacetime is a curvature of gravity. Or did he, and is there a difference between saying gravity is a curvature of spacetime or spacetime is a curvature of gravity?
If the Riemann tensor is zero in a region of spacetime, is it possible a gravity field there?
Or, is it possible a Riemann tensor different from zero in a region and no gravity field there?
If the answer is no for both questions, then spacetime curvature <=> gravity.
... what characterizes the existence of a gravitational field from the empirical standpoint is the non-vanishing of the components of the affine connection], not the vanishing of the [components of the Riemann tensor]. If one does not think in such intuitive (anschaulich) ways, one cannot grasp whysomething like curvature should have anything at all to do with gravitation. In any case, no rational person would have hit upon anything otherwise. The key to the understanding of the equality of gravitational mass and inertial mass would have been missing.
Yes. Without question. Its the affine connection that determines the presence of a gravitational field, no tidal forces.
Yes. In fact if you have a gradiometer in free fall while in orbit of Earth then in that frame the gravitational field is zero but there are still tidal forces present.
Do you have an example? I can imagine a gravitational field generated by an infinite plane. In that case the field is uniform and there are no tidal forces. But infinite planes were not detected by astronomers until now.
If there are tidal forces, and the Riemann tensor is not zero, some Christoffel symbols must be non zero.
What according to the Einstein text (..non-vanishing of the components of the affine connection...) => gravitational field.
Not true. In a locally inertial frame in a curved spacetime all of the affine connections vanish but the Riemann tensor doesn't. That's because the Riemann tensor is a function of both the Christoffel symbols as well as their derivatives.
The Christoffel symbols are functions of position and time. If in a point and its neighborhood they vanish, their derivatives also vanish at this point => Riemann tensor = 0.
... what characterizes the existence of a gravitational field from the empirical standpoint is the non-vanishing of the components of the affine connection], not the vanishing of the [components of the Riemann tensor]. If one does not think in such intuitive (anschaulich) ways, one cannot grasp whysomething like curvature should have anything at all to do with gravitation.In any case, no rational person would have hit upon anything otherwise. The key to the understanding of the equality of gravitational mass and inertial mass would have been missing.
About the example, it is too complicated to calculate the metric tensor and see if the Riemann tensor is zero.QuoteIt's rehire easy. See: http://www.newenglandphysics.org/physics_world/gr/uniform_force.htm
It's rehire easy. See: http://www.newenglandphysics.org/physics_world/gr/uniform_force.htm