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Gravity has nothing to do with rotation. It is a function of mass only.
Now if electromagnetic energy has a gravitational field, photons travelling through otherwise unoccupied space will tend to clump together (since gravity always sucks) , so the intensity of light received from distant stars will increase with distance, by self-focussing. And there will be stars out there that we can't see because their self-focussed beam isn't pointing in our direction. Really?
I'm pretty sure energy creates gravitational fields as well, does it not? Otherwise, it seems like you could violate the first law of thermodynamics. In principle, you should be able to convert the entire Earth's mass into energy. If that got rid of its gravitational field, then you could move a weight away from the Earth at no energy cost. Then turn the Earth's energy back into mass and let the weight fall under the influence of the newly-created gravitational field. Rinse and repeat as often as you'd like and you'd have a source of infinite energy.
so you are telling me that electromagnetic radiation has a gravitational field, and therefore F≠GMm/r2?
If a gravitational field actually rotated then the speed of information transfer becomes Galilean.
How exactly might one propose to get this energy away from Earth 'at no cost'? Light doesn't work since it loses energy as it climbs out of a gravity well.
Gravity doesn't suddenly spring into existence out of nowhere. It has energy and energy is conserved.
In principle, you should be able to convert the entire Earth's mass into energy.
Mass popping from nowhere " before the big bang" will have gravity propagate with c and finite range, for mass to have infinite gravity range it should exist infinitely in time in the past so that its influence reaches infinite , but infinite time in the past is not logical.
if we wait long enough, with a sufficiently sensitive instrument, we will detect the creation of a distant mass.
The gravity of the energy of a rotating object doesn't reach some places in the universe " equals zero , is not available there , etc" and that is exactly the definition of a limited range.Suppose there is a planet 3E^8 meters away from us , this planet rotates to create new gravity, after 0.5 seconds its gravity range will be 1.5E^8 that means every object inside its range will be affected by its gravity and that according to the inverse squared law, and every object outside its range won't be affected by its gravity including us, we are out of range.The limited range is not fixed its extendable and increases with time by the speed of light c.If gravity propagate with c , and at some moment there are some places which are covered with gravity influence and some parts in the universe which are not then there is a limited range.It is simple and obvious as this: gravity didn't reach us and available elsewhere then we are out of range and there is a limited range, gravity propagate with c then this range extends with c .What equation is used in such case ? the equation calculate g for any given r but, if gravity didn't reach us that means g=0 for distance equals 3E^8 , making the equation invalid for this calculation.If gravity doesn't exert its influence infinitely then it has a finite range that is exactly what I claim
Where is the boundary for gravity? Is it the edge of the observable universe?
Cut to the chase."How does gravity exert its influence infinitely?"How could it not do so?
Quote from: Bored chemist on 27/05/2019 13:10:07Cut to the chase."How does gravity exert its influence infinitely?"How could it not do so?Because it has finite propagation speed.
Where is the boundary for gravity?