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I have the been researching the value of infinity, though i have did calculation on most of the series and binomial theorem i have got correct answer. Some member named MR Scientist had told joke ? That infinity can be squared and the value will be least the same! That doesn't make any sense. I am now researching on the value of infinity, In my first experiment i had got the value of infinity like 0.value, My friend asked to substitute in integration. But the results came worse and again i saw the problem i got the answer something......... that was correct. I am now trying to solve equation based on e=mc2. If i get success in the value then, i will say the value of infinity. I am still working on it.1)Any question can please send i will get u the answer using my infinity value. Once i proved the theorem then the bigger sum can be done in second !!!Any suggestion please send !!

I am now researching on the value of infinity,

Huh [] I don't get it, how can you be near to infinity? []

When you get infinity, tell me; I will add 1 and I'll have a greater value than your...Regards.

Quote from: lightarrow on 18/01/2009 11:17:35When you get infinity, tell me; I will add 1 and I'll have a greater value than your...Regards.I'll square that! (∞ + 1)^{2} = ∞My infinity is bigger than your infinity!

Quote from: MonikaS on 18/01/2009 18:23:53Quote from: lightarrow on 18/01/2009 11:17:35When you get infinity, tell me; I will add 1 and I'll have a greater value than your...Regards.I'll square that! (∞ + 1)^{2} = ∞My infinity is bigger than your infinity!So size does matter! []

Quote from: MonikaS on 18/01/2009 18:23:53Quote from: lightarrow on 18/01/2009 11:17:35When you get infinity, tell me; I will add 1 and I'll have a greater value than your...Regards.I'll square that! (∞ + 1)^{2} = ∞My infinity is bigger than your infinity!No because, by definition, my infinity is generated by adding one to every other infinity. I always beat your by 1... []

2 months

Quote from: raghavendra on 19/01/2009 08:54:51 2 monthsAfter 20 yrs you might have some good ideas.

I haven't GOT IT [][][]

Nope.Why don't you explain it to me? []

Quote from: Chemistry4me on 02/03/2009 09:03:43Nope.Why don't you explain it to me? []ditto

What are you trying to say?That infinity is not infinitely infinite?

Well yes, I get that.But what happened to the concept of infinity? [] I thought you were going to explain it. []

dividing by zero is a lot more fun....

I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...but if you try to use infinity in such an equation... ∞ + 1 = ∞therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1which leaves us with 0 = 1

Quote from: LeeE on 21/11/2009 18:04:36I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...but if you try to use infinity in such an equation... ∞ + 1 = ∞therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1which leaves us with 0 = 1That is a mathematical fallacy.

That is a mathematical fallacy.

Quote from: Mr. Scientist on 21/11/2009 18:08:09Quote from: LeeE on 21/11/2009 18:04:36I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...but if you try to use infinity in such an equation... ∞ + 1 = ∞therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1which leaves us with 0 = 1That is a mathematical fallacy. Can you show why?

I can't see what you've proved at all there.Of course the reduction to 0 = 1 is absurd. That was the point.

Of course i can.I'll prove the infinity part to be completely irrelevent by showing the reduction 0=1 is of absurdum:let x=1Take the derivative of both sides which inexorably yields:d/dx(x)=d/dx(1)so naturally one would expect 1=0 as a solution, but the fallacy lies in treating x as a variable which can change over some given time. That in a nutshell disproves the entire theory.