[LeeE]

I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.

For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...

but if you try to use infinity in such an equation...

  ∞ + 1 = ∞

therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1

which leaves us with 0 = 1

[Mr. Scientist]

I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.

For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...

but if you try to use infinity in such an equation...

  ∞ + 1 = ∞

therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1

which leaves us with 0 = 1

That is a mathematical fallacy.

[lightarrow]

I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.

For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...

but if you try to use infinity in such an equation...

  ∞ + 1 = ∞

therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1

which leaves us with 0 = 1

That is a mathematical fallacy.

Can you show why?

[Geezer]

That is a mathematical fallacy.

I think that was LeeE's point. You can't do math with infinity. It has no value!  []

(It may also be "pointless". --- OK! OK! No need to push. I was just about to leave anyway.)

[Mr. Scientist]

I think you can only properly regard infinity as a dynamic number i.e. time, in the sense of before and after, is an intrinsic factor, but this means you can't really use it in static equations and make much sense.

For example, the static equation 1 + 1 = 2 is always true...

but if you try to use infinity in such an equation...

  ∞ + 1 = ∞

therefore ∞ - ∞ = 1

which leaves us with 0 = 1

That is a mathematical fallacy.

Can you show why?

Of course i can.

I'll prove the infinity part to be completely irrelevent by showing the reduction 0=1 is of absurdum:

let x=1

Take the derivative of both sides which inexorably yields:

d/dx(x)=d/dx(1)

so naturally one would expect 1=0 as a solution, but the fallacy lies in treating x as a variable which can change over some given time. That in a nutshell disproves the entire theory.

[LeeE]

I can't see what you've proved at all there.

Of course the reduction to 0 = 1 is absurd.  That was the point.

[Mr. Scientist]

I can't see what you've proved at all there.

Of course the reduction to 0 = 1 is absurd.  That was the point.

Yes, that point was made for you. I thought you intended it was correct. I was wrong in this case, and apologize.

[Mr. Scientist]

But it might interest many here to know, that this type of rigor has been violated early on in physics history. I can't remember who exactly, but many scientists (who's theories today) hold had messed about using concepts like ∞ - ∞ = 1.

It's not so much that they are fallacies, but more of an indication that the equations derived are not complete.

[lightarrow]

Of course i can.

I'll prove the infinity part to be completely irrelevent by showing the reduction 0=1 is of absurdum:

let x=1

Take the derivative of both sides which inexorably yields:

d/dx(x)=d/dx(1)

so naturally one would expect 1=0 as a solution, but the fallacy lies in treating x as a variable which can change over some given time. That in a nutshell disproves the entire theory.

No the fallacy is in this: from ∞ + 1 = ∞ (which is true) you cannot deduce that ∞ - ∞ = 1 because you are not allowd to sum or subtract infinite from both sides of an equation; you can do that only with *finite* numbers.
Example:

2 = 2 but: 2 + x ≠ 2 + x²

if x --> +∞ in the last equation, you have 2 + ∞ ≠ 2 + ∞.

Said in another way: infinite is not a number, it can actually "have" an arbitrary value, so from 2 = 2 it doesn't follow that 2 + ∞ = 2 + ∞.

[way12go]

Infinity means not finite and it means infinity can't be a number. There are infinite numbers but when it comes to existence number of apples can't be infinite. Infinite is just the opposite of finite and any number is finite but never infinite. For more information please visit my blog
sagargorijala DOT blogspot DOT com

[Geezer]

It's not in Spamish is it?

[Dimi]

infinity does not exist (Thats how strong its existance is )

Circle has no start nor no end (Ok when you draw it or rub out a small section blabla) - nothing can join in on the loop, nor can the loop go out.

[variationz]

Here is the answer you have been looking for...
http://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=26911.0 [nofollow]

[Mr. Scientist]

I have the been researching the value of infinity, though i have did calculation on most of the series and binomial theorem i have got correct answer.
 
  Some member named MR Scientist had told joke ? That infinity can be squared and the value will be least the same! That doesn't make any sense.

 I am now researching on the value of infinity,
In my first experiment i had got the value of infinity like 0.value, My friend asked to substitute in integration. But the results came worse and again i saw the problem i got the answer something......... that was correct.

 I am now trying to solve equation based on e=mc2. If i get success in the value then, i will say the value of infinity.

 I am still working on it.

1)Any question can please send i will get u the answer using my infinity value.

 Once i proved the theorem then the bigger sum can be done in second !!!

Any suggestion please send !!

There are different infinities... some can be larger due to the fantastic work of cardinals and ordinals. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinity

But i wasn't joking. If someone cannot specify a certain amount of something or of infinity rather, then you may as well sqaure it and you have no more of an infinity than you began with, without the definitions given in the link.

[variationz]

XY=1
If 1=0 God exists otherwise God can't exist. For all X, Y takes a different value, such that XY=1. If we draw a graph for all values of X and Y we get Rectangular Hyperbola and we can clearly observe that both X and Y can never be ZERO, therefore GOD(S) can't exist.If 1 can come out of 0 it means creation ( by GOD ) and if 1 can become 0 then it means destruction ( by GOD ). XY=1 supplies as means to understand that 1 is not equal to 0 and it means absence of GOD. The only GOD is life. We are GODS. Our parents are GODS.
XY=1 is a means to understand why X and Y can't be zero. Weather it is a unit area of a rectangle or rectangular hyperbola... it doesn't matter until you see the connection. All we have to do is obtain the possible values of X and Y such that XY=1....and X and Y can never be equal to zero. If X or Y equals to zero then we get 1=0 which is??? Still want me to connect the dots? This is the big picture...the big picture is neither X nor Y can ever be equal to zero. That answers all the questions... X never becomes 0 and the same goes with Y. This means that the so called creation and destruction are simply impossible. In my theory there are eleven postulates and only one [[[ velocity of light is relative ]]] postulate is not connected to XY=1. All the other TEN POSTULATES are interconnected. The only thing you have to understand is the possibilities of XY=1 and what else it can mean.
1. Zero can not exist as denominator.
2. Anything can not be created out of nothingness, only change of form is possible and change is everywhere.
3. Anything can not be destroyed into nothingness, only change of form is possible and change is everywhere.
4. Existence of anything can not be infinite.
5. There is no beginning and an end to the existence of the World.
6. There are finite absolute laws.
7. Velocity of light is relative.
8. There are three dimensions and three dimensions only.
9. Time Travel is impossible.
10. Tan 90 can not exist.
11. God(s) can not exist.
.....CONNECTING THE DOTS.....
FIRST POSTULATE:
1. Zero can not exist as denominator.
If X can't be zero...
If Y can't be zero...
1/0 can't equal anything. Hence proved.
SECOND POSTULATE:
2. Anything can not be created out of nothingness.
If 1 can't become zero...
If 0 can't become one...
Creation? ( change related creation? or total creation? )
Destruction? ( change related destruction? or total destruction? )
If creation and destruction ( not related to change of form ) are possible then there is no reason why it can't happen NOW???!!!
All rules will fail if CREATION and DESTRUCTION are possible.
1=0 becomes the only rule...all other rules will fail.
The only rule with
1=0 ( If accepted )
is anything equals anything.
Proton=Electron=Neutron=Quark=Meson...etc;
Anything can't equal anything else.
ONE can't be equal to ZERO.
All other postulates are hence proved.
Fundamental theory of existence.

God(s) can not exist.Space can not be infinite and it is timeless.There is no beginning and an end to the existence of the World.Numbers are infinite but number of apples (existence) can not be infinite.....

[JP]

This has veered far from discussing any mainstream Physics, Astronomy and Cosmology topic, so I've moved the thread.  If anyone has a good reason why it should be moved back, I'm open to hearing it.  Feel free to PM me.

[Murchie85]

I think personally that infinity is just a concept and can never fully be described in the terms of numbers or possibly mathematics.

[tommya300]

If infinity is discovered and defined, what is left to discuss? The reciprocal?
Anyway this thread displays a number of resources. The good portion of this forum's members that has not been seen for a year. Hi to ya all 2009 posts!
I can not see anything more than that here JP

[kenhikage]

So the Indians were the first to use 0 in math. Who were the first to use ∞?

[Kakahi$0]

Hi

I once also tried working it out, but with my limited knowledge in the field of mathematics, I'm not sure whether my proof made complete sense if any. Please check it out:

Here is the following proof for infinity:

1+1+1+1+1+...= ∞
4(1+1+1+1+1+...)=4(∞)

Therefore 4+4+4+4+4+...=4∞ - (I call this equation S1)

1-1+1-1+1-1+...=1/2 →(This equation has been proven by legit mathematicians on YouTube. I'm just using it.)
4(1-1+1-1+1-1+...)=4(1/2)

Therefore 4-4+4-4+4-4+...=2 - (I call this equation S2)

S1-S2= 4+4+4+4+4+...
         -(4-4+4-4+4-...)

=0+8+0+8+0+8...
=8+8+8+8+8+8...=8∞ - (I call this equation S3)

S1-S2=S3, Therefore:

4∞-2=8∞
4∞=-2

Therefore... ∞= -1/2

Thanks if you bothered reading and please tell me what u think[?] [?] [?]