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Of course i can.I'll prove the infinity part to be completely irrelevent by showing the reduction 0=1 is of absurdum:let x=1Take the derivative of both sides which inexorably yields:d/dx(x)=d/dx(1)so naturally one would expect 1=0 as a solution, but the fallacy lies in treating x as a variable which can change over some given time. That in a nutshell disproves the entire theory.

I have the been researching the value of infinity, though i have did calculation on most of the series and binomial theorem i have got correct answer. Some member named MR Scientist had told joke ? That infinity can be squared and the value will be least the same! That doesn't make any sense. I am now researching on the value of infinity, In my first experiment i had got the value of infinity like 0.value, My friend asked to substitute in integration. But the results came worse and again i saw the problem i got the answer something......... that was correct. I am now trying to solve equation based on e=mc2. If i get success in the value then, i will say the value of infinity. I am still working on it.1)Any question can please send i will get u the answer using my infinity value. Once i proved the theorem then the bigger sum can be done in second !!!Any suggestion please send !!